Periodontics
This page contains the documents that relate to the Dental Specialty Fellowship Examinations for this topic.
- Examination Syllabus
- Sample examination questions
- Assessment strategy
- Link to the GDC Curriculum
- Link to the training syllabus defined by the Specialty Advisory Committee (SAC)
- Illustration of how the change to the curriculum impacts the examination certifications
- Part 1 SBA Sample Questions
Examination Syllabus
Assessment Strategy
GDC Curriculum and Training Syllabus
Training syllabus – As defined by the Specialty Advisory Committee (SAC)
Illustrative Examination Route
The image below is to illustrate the changes to certification as a result of the introduction of the new curriculum. The illustration assumes full time training. Trainees on the NTN pathway should refer to their TPD’s or Post Graduate Dental Dean for information about progression.
Sample Questions
Below are five sample Single Best Answer (SBA) questions selected from across the syllabus. These questions are designed to be indicative of the level, style, and cognitive demand of the examination and reflect the use of higher‑order clinical reasoning. They are provided solely as a guide and should not be interpreted as representative of the full breadth or specific content of the assessment.
You will be required to select the most appropriate answer from a choice of five answers. There may be images and/or test results included in the data provided for the question.
The examination comprises two papers of 90 SBA questions, each of two hours’ duration. There is no negative marking, and candidates are therefore encouraged to attempt every question. During each paper, candidates will be able to navigate freely between questions and amend their answers at any point prior to submission. Further information on the in-centre assessment experience will be made available on the website and in direct communications to registered candidates.
Question 1
A 52-year-old patient attends for periodontal assessment. He is systemically well, smokes 15 cigarettes per day. Previous periodontal records are unavailable.
- Generalised bleeding on probing
- Interdental clinical attachment loss (CAL) of 5 mm at the worst sites
- Probing depths mostly 4 to 6 mm, with two molar sites of 7 mm
- Radiographs show bone loss extending to the middle third of the root in multiple posterior teeth in both arches
- No tooth loss due to periodontitis
- No masticatory dysfunction, bite collapse, drifting, or secondary occlusal trauma
What is the single best diagnosis?
A. Generalised periodontitis, Stage II, Grade B
B. Generalised periodontitis, Stage III, Grade C
C. Generalised periodontitis, Stage III, Grade B
D. Generalised periodontitis, Stage IV, Grade C
E. Localised periodontitis, Stage III, Grade C
The correct answer is B.
Justification: Periodontitis is diagnosed from interdental CAL and radiographic bone loss. Stage III is most appropriate because the case includes CAL of at least 5 mm, radiographic bone loss to the middle third of the root, and probing depths up to 7 mm. Stage IV is not justified because there is no tooth loss due to periodontitis and no complexity features such as masticatory dysfunction or bite collapse. Grade C is appropriate because smoking 10 or more cigarettes per day is a grading modifier consistent with higher risk of rapid progression and % bone loss vs age ratio >1. Generalised is correct because disease is present across multiple areas of the dentition.
Question 2
A healthy 34-year-old non-smoking adult has completed non-surgical periodontal therapy and now presents for surgical management of a persistent 8 mm pocket at the distal aspect LR5. Oral hygiene is good and bleeding scores are low. Clinical and radiographic assessment suggests a narrow, deep 3-wall intrabony defect. The clinician is considering a regenerative approach.
Which statement best explains the most important wound-healing principle for achieving true periodontal regeneration at this site?
A. Rapid epithelial coverage of the root surface during the first postoperative days is desirable because it stabilizes the clot and promotes new connective tissue attachment.
B. Early connective tissue adhesion from the gingival flap is the main determinant of regeneration, because bone will subsequently remodel to recreate periodontal ligament and cementum.
C. One of the key events is delaying epithelial downgrowth long enough for periodontal ligament and bone-derived cells to repopulate the root surface and wound space.
D. Biologics are chiefly effective because they accelerate soft-tissue closure, which predictably leads to hard-tissue regeneration in contained intrabony defects.
E. In a deep 3-wall intrabony defect, radiographic bone fill is sufficient evidence that true regeneration has occurred, regardless of the nature of attachment formed.
The correct answer is C.
Justification: The central biologic principle is selective cell repopulation: for true periodontal regeneration, epithelial downgrowth must be delayed or excluded, allowing cells from the periodontal ligament and adjacent bone to populate the wound and root surface. This supports formation of new cementum, periodontal ligament, and alveolar bone, rather than repair with a long junction epithelium.
Question 3
A healthy 29-year-old non-smoking adult presents with sensitivity and aesthetic concern affecting LL3.
- Single isolated gingival recession defect
- Cairo RT1
- Recession depth 3 mm
- Thin gingival phenotype (<2mm)
- Minimal keratinized tissue apical to the recession (<2mm)
- No non-carious cervical lesion
- Good plaque control
The patient wants the most predictable root coverage with improvement in tissue thickness and long-term stability. Which is the single best treatment option?
A. Coronally advanced flap alone
B. Tunnel technique with connective tissue graft
C. Free gingival graft
D. No mucogingival surgery because RT1 defects do not require treatment
E. Gingivectomy to improve the gingival margin contour
The correct answer is B.
Justification: For a single RT1 recession defect in a patient with a thin phenotype and limited keratinized tissue, the most predictable root coverage with phenotype enhancement is a connective tissue graft-based approach. Tunnel plus CTG is especially attractive where thickness augmentation and esthetics are priorities.
Question 4
A healthy 47-year-old non-smoking adult has completed cause-related periodontal therapy and demonstrates good plaque control. The LR6 remains symptomatic on cleaning, with persistent inflammation at the buccal furcation.
- Buccal furcation probe penetrates more than 3 mm horizontally, but not through-and-through
- Residual pocketing of 6 mm is present at the buccal furcation
- Tooth is restorable, vital, not mobile and has a favourable root anatomy
- Radiographs show localised furcation radiolucency with moderate bone loss
- The patient is motivated and suitable for surgery
Which is the single best management option?
A. Open flap debridement alone
B. Periodontal regenerative surgery for a mandibular Class II furcation
C. Tunnel preparation
D. Root resection or hemi-section
E. Extraction and implant placement
The correct answer is B.
Justification: This furcation is best classified as Class II because horizontal probing extends more than 3 mm but not through-and-through. In a surgically suitable mandibular Class II furcation, regenerative surgery is the best option.
Question 5
A supportive periodontal care (SPC) audit was carried out for patients previously treated for Stage III periodontitis for one year. The local standards are ≥ 85% attendance within the recommended recall window, ≥ 70% of attending patients with < 20 percent bleeding on probing (BoP) at review, and patients with two consecutive missed SPC appointments should have a documented risk-based clinician review to decide whether recall interval, communication method, or case management should be escalated.
- Baseline audit cycle (n=90): 72 of 90 attended; 40 of 72 attending patients achieved BoP below 20 percent. 10 non-attenders had missed two consecutive SPC appointments and only 2 of the 10 had a documented clinician review.
- The team introduced automated reminder texts, receptionist follow-up calls after missed appointments, and standardised oral-hygiene reinforcement at SPC visits.
- Re-audit after 6 months (n = 50): 44 of 50 attended as planned, 24 of 44 attending patients achieved BoP below 20 percent. 4 non-attenders had missed two consecutive appointments, and only 1 of 4 had documented clinician review.
Which is the single best next step?
A. Close the audit, because the attendance standard has now been achieved and the number of non-attenders is small.
B. Repeat the same audit again in 6 months without changing the protocol, because more data is needed before any action is justified.
C. Refer all repeated non-attenders for periodontal surgery because missed SPC implies treatment failure and then re-audit against the same standards after implementation.
D. Retain the attendance interventions, introduce a targeted escalation pathway for the subgroup with repeated non-attendance requiring documented clinician risk review, and then re-audit against the same standards after implementation.
E. Stop measuring BoP outcomes because attendance is the more reliable audit indicator in supportive care and then introduce a targeted escalation pathway for the subgroup with repeated non-attendance requiring documented clinician risk review. Re-audit with the new standard after implementation.
The correct answer is D.
Justification: The re-audit shows a mixed picture: attendance improved from 80 percent to 88 percent, but BoP remains below target and the service is still failing its own process standard for documented clinician review of repeated non-attenders. The best next step is to keep the changes that improved attendance, add a specific escalation pathway for the high-risk subgroup with repeated missed SPC, and then re-audit using the same standards.